OK, I confess I'm not of a naval background, and have most of my military experience second-hand from the army, and a British-based one at that. Nevertheless, I thought I had some grasp of naval procedure and protocol until this week (And yes, those who know me know I declare a ceasefire at this time of year on social media, leaving all the negativity behind; Seems like 2020 is going to test me on THAT as well, but just here ) , when during a discussion on the Star Trek: TOS episode "The Doomsday Machine" I made the error of claiming that the drama on the bridge when Kirk is on the wreck of the "Constellation" and Admiral Decker has taken command of the "Enterprise", Spock's actions and Kirk's reactions are within naval protocol and all the better for it.
However.
Another commentator, after laughing at me for "Not spending any time on a ship" informed me that it was all wrong; That a ranking officer simply couldn't commandeer a ship when the Captain was absent and unable to return, that a second officer couldn't summarily disobey a superior officer who had delivered an illegal order, nor attempt to relieve them of duty without the co-operation of others, nor could anyone be permitted to give orders without a prior medical examination to determine competency.
While I can concede the last applies, given how the admiral was in a state of exhaustion and mental distress over the total loss of his ship's complement, I have my doubts about the others given my knowledge of standard military practice. Plus which, given how the episode "Obsession" has been praised for the accuracy of the scene in which Spock and McCoy approach Kirk to relieve him of duty when they suspect his judgement is impaired, in much the same way as Spock does in Decker's case, I fail to see the difference.
Anyone care to put me on the right course, as it were, here? Am I in error, or is the episode a bit out of line in regard to the rules?